> The most obvious example, Republicans have won the national popular vote once in the last 8 presidential elections. Isn't that the other way around? https://

> The most obvious example, Republicans have won the national popular vote once in the last 8 presidential elections. Isn't that the other way around? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_United_States_presidential_elections_by_popular_vote_margin https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_United_States_presiden... (i.e. Democrats have won the popular vote in the last 8 presidential elections, but have only won the office in 5 of those). Also, I had forgotten this (and it was huge at the time, and I voted in those elections, so I should remember), but Bill Clinton didn't win the majority popular vote either. The democrats had a larger popular vote that the republicans, for sure, but not over 50% due to third party / independent candidates. Contrast that with the last 6 elections where the democratic party has had more than 50% of the popular vote each time. Ah... And W's second term the republicans had more than 50% of the popular vote...