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I'm not committing that fallacy as defined because I'm not making "a claim about the present meaning of a word based exclusively on that word's etymology". > a
by jhgb 4y ago
I'm not committing that fallacy as defined because I'm not making "a claim about the present meaning of a word based exclusively on that word's etymology".
> and "wine" have been used for ages to refer to cherry wine, dandelion wine, apple wine, etc.
The possible problem with that argument is that compounds are often not the same thing as the intersection of their components. One famous example from my native language is that "pietní akt" refers to a memorial act for the dead (for example, fallen soldiers), whereas merely "akt" refers to a nude painting or sculpture (as in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nude_(art) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nude_(art)). "Pietní akt" is not a subtype of "akt"; it's an idiom/colocation with its own peculiar meaning.
- goto11 4y agoYou have to make the argument to the good people of Merriam-Webster then. I'm just the messenger here.