4 ms·
Wasn't the dole only implemented because land ownership had concentrated to a few extremely wealthy individuals? Only a few generations earlier, during the Sec
by MereInterest 4y ago
Wasn't the dole only implemented because land ownership had concentrated to a few extremely wealthy individuals? Only a few generations earlier, during the Second Punic War many landowners had either died or had their farms ruined to deny food to Hannibal, allowing the land to be bought at low prices.
- trashtester 4y agoCombined with massive influx of slaves from Gaul and other places making latin farm laborers too expensive. Still, the effect is the same. A large proletariat with very little income demanding to be fed by the state. With significant political power, based on making up a large percentage of the population in the capital.
- thaumasiotes 4y ago> Wasn't the dole only implemented because land ownership had concentrated to a few extremely wealthy individuals? It was implemented because it got votes. It's not a coincidence that it was restricted to people who could vote. You get welfare whenever you expand the franchise too far.
- davidgay 4y ago> You get welfare whenever you expand the franchise too far. So, pray tell, what was the step too far (in no particular order): - women - slaves - non-property owners - non-poll-tax payers - 18 year olds ... and in which of those categories do you fall?
- thaumasiotes 4y agoNon-property owners.
- MereInterest 4y agoIs that an answer to their first question, their second, or both?
- panick21_ 4y agoThe problem with many of those argument is that the source base to draw such wide conclusion is really bad. And while we have some comments on some things in some regions, to make wider conclusions about economics for the empire as a whole is really tricky business.