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> You suggest that I do not see the forest for the trees. Yes, that is right. That is exactly right. You are hanging on words I used, in order to introduce new

> You suggest that I do not see the forest for the trees. Yes, that is right. That is exactly right. You are hanging on words I used, in order to introduce new words and ideas in your first post, so that you can say I am wrong, and even after I explained further, you are then repeating yourself and still arguing against my first post. You are indeed staring closely and intently at a single tree, when everyone else is talking about the forest. Here, I'll quote the citation I used: > As you play a new guitar (or other wooden instrument), the fibers in the wood settle somewhat due to the vibration, and over time this causes the wood to become stiffer, more stable, and more resonant, which in turn improves the sound. Different woods experience this phenomenon differently; for example, spruce takes about a year of playing to break in, and a guitar with a spruce top will sound better after a year of playing than it did right out of the box. After that, the aging process is slower and the marginal improvements smaller. Cedar, on the other hand, breaks in both sooner and more steadily---you may notice a slight improvement in resonance earlier than you would with a spruce top, but the overall improvement after a year may not be as much as with spruce. When I shake a box of sand, the grains will realign, with the larger grains sifting to the top. I suppose you now think I am making crystals with a box of sand? Your employment of "crystals" is a straw man.

alexvoda 4y ago
Sand is a fluid. From wikipedia: "In physics, a fluid is a liquid, gas, or other material that continuously deforms (flows) under an applied shear stress, or external force" Sawdust may be a fluid but wood is definitely not a fluid. And in any fluid, the particles are not in any meaningful way "aligned". What you are describing with different grain sizes is similar to the behaviour of different density liquids like oil and water. They are still in no meaningful way aligned. So unless you want to claim that a guitar is a fluid, even this interpretation does not apply. What I am saying is precisely that "the fibers in the wood settle somewhat due to the vibration" is a bullshit claim spouted with utter confidence and lacking any king of evidence. I am NOT claiming that instruments do not "break in". I am asserting that this does not happen due to exposure to sound or music. I am asserting that if you do the experiment I describe, there will be no measurable difference beyond individual variation (that is why I proposed repeating the experiment on 2 * n instruments). And I assert that playing the instruments from the same experiment in a double blind listener test no one will be able to observe a difference between the 2 sets of instruments beyond just guessing. I am claiming that this whole idea is the acoustic equivalent of audiophile grade ethernet cables.
- Maursault 4y ago
  It is merely counterexample, and my use of it was intended to show that your employment of crystals is a straw man fallacy. You employed it only to attack it, but crystal was never any part of my argument. Love repeating myself.

alexvoda 4y ago

Sand is a fluid. From wikipedia: "In physics, a fluid is a liquid, gas, or other material that continuously deforms (flows) under an applied shear stress, or external force" Sawdust may be a fluid but wood is definitely not a fluid. And in any fluid, the particles are not in any meaningful way "aligned". What you are describing with different grain sizes is similar to the behaviour of different density liquids like oil and water. They are still in no meaningful way aligned. So unless you want to claim that a guitar is a fluid, even this interpretation does not apply. What I am saying is precisely that "the fibers in the wood settle somewhat due to the vibration" is a bullshit claim spouted with utter confidence and lacking any king of evidence. I am NOT claiming that instruments do not "break in". I am asserting that this does not happen due to exposure to sound or music. I am asserting that if you do the experiment I describe, there will be no measurable difference beyond individual variation (that is why I proposed repeating the experiment on 2 * n instruments). And I assert that playing the instruments from the same experiment in a double blind listener test no one will be able to observe a difference between the 2 sets of instruments beyond just guessing. I am claiming that this whole idea is the acoustic equivalent of audiophile grade ethernet cables.

Maursault 4y ago
It is merely counterexample, and my use of it was intended to show that your employment of crystals is a straw man fallacy. You employed it only to attack it, but crystal was never any part of my argument. Love repeating myself.