I don't think anyone's asserting everything is fine. To me it read that TFA is saying the rise is numbers is a consequence of changes in diagnostics. You asse

I don't think anyone's asserting everything is fine. To me it read that TFA is saying the rise is numbers is a consequence of changes in diagnostics. You asserted criminality originally because numbers are rising (not in contention) and credible causes have been identified - are you saying rises in numbers are purely due to trend of later-age in parents, or are there additional? Do those explanations cover younger parent cohorts that also see a rise in diagnosed cases?