> Segregation was not perfectly consistent with the 14th Amendment prior to Brown v. Board, it was never consistent with it, from the time of its passage. So i

> Segregation was not perfectly consistent with the 14th Amendment prior to Brown v. Board, it was never consistent with it, from the time of its passage. So if a future court overturns Brown v. Board, then it means that segregation is consistent again (and always has been)? How is this not exactly the kind of capriciousness that TFA is illustrating?