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Does this mean they can't contribute to open-source MIT-equivalent licensed code bases? As that's basically giving that code to the public domain, is it not?
by ThunderSizzle 4y ago
Does this mean they can't contribute to open-source MIT-equivalent licensed code bases? As that's basically giving that code to the public domain, is it not?
- capableweb 4y ago"Public Domain Is Not Open Source | Open Source Initiative" - https://opensource.org/node/878 https://opensource.org/node/878
- tzs 4y agoThat article's argument is that you can't be sure that you have rights to use public domain software because there are legal differences in how public domain works in different countries. I do not find this argument very persuasive. Other aspects and of IP law and of licensing related law are different in different countries too. If I find some software purportedly from a developer in Wheretheheckisthatistan that says it is under some OSI-approved license all that tells me is that the developer (probably) tried to license it under that license. But I have no idea if they actually succeeded in doing so--for instance maybe their employment agreement for their day job says it belongs to the employer and they are in a country where such agreements are enforceable.
- boyter 4y agoNo. Explicitly licensing things is fine as you still retain copyright, but are allowing others to use and modify.