>Since Godel’s first incompleteness theorem is not a formal system, it does not apply to itself. Except the author is formalizing the theorem. Meaning the theo

>Since Godel’s first incompleteness theorem is not a formal system, it does not apply to itself. Except the author is formalizing the theorem. Meaning the theorem is based off a formal system. That means the system itself that was created to derive this theorem is either incomplete or inconsistent. So Yes it does apply to itself.