3 ms·
Right. If you think about it as a function of the state itself, the 2 definitions agree. If the function is `f(x, state) -> (y, state')`, then f is "imperitivel
by cobbal 4y ago
Right. If you think about it as a function of the state itself, the 2 definitions agree. If the function is `f(x, state) -> (y, state')`, then f is "imperitively idempotent" when `g(state) = f(fixedX, state).state'` is "mathematically idempotent"