Claim: > the first map with Poland [...] doesn't explain much. Reasoning that disputes it: > The Russian partition [...] was the cause of the area in blue be

Claim: > the first map with Poland [...] doesn't explain much. Reasoning that disputes it: > The Russian partition [...] was the cause of the area in blue being poor and underdeveloped For these to be contradictory statements, the Russian partition must refer to something meaningfully different than what the map with Poland refers to. Is that true? I'm no history buff, I'll leave it up to others to say.