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especially considering the more proportional voting system used by the EU What do you mean by that, exactly? Because EU votes are only proportional by country;
by tremon 5y ago
especially considering the more proportional voting system used by the EU
What do you mean by that, exactly? Because EU votes are only proportional by country; each country is allocated a fixed number of seats based on its population, and each country only votes for its own representation. A UK vote has zero effect on the Hungarian MEP distribution.
- dane-pgp 5y agoI meant that the system for electing MEPs (using the D'Hondt and STV methods) was more proportional than FPTP as used in UK general elections. Thus a UK vote in a European election was better reflected in the composition of MEPs elected (and thus the party of the European commission president) than an equivalent UK vote in a general election. Actually, to be clear, I haven't compared the Gallagher index[0] values of UK general elections and UK elections of MEPs, so I accept the possibility that quirks of the two systems and the UK political scene might mean that the real world outcomes don't match the theory. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gallagher_index https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gallagher_index