3 ms·
No, because, under the Uniform Commercial Code, the contract for sale of goods, by a merchant, with a value over $500 has to be in writing. But that also doesn'
by NovemberWhiskey 5y ago
No, because, under the Uniform Commercial Code, the contract for sale of goods, by a merchant, with a value over $500 has to be in writing. But that also doesn't tell you anything about this case, because the category of "goods" does not include "general intangibles" into which category the courts have placed domain names, and because the seller in this case would not be considered a merchant in the sense of the UCC.