This makes sense and fits with what I understand to be the general 2/3 owner occupied properties and 1/3 rental properties ratio. I never thought though that th

This makes sense and fits with what I understand to be the general 2/3 owner occupied properties and 1/3 rental properties ratio. I never thought though that this was what was essentially being referred to as the 'homeownership rate'. It has always bothered me that the naive interpretation (i.e. that it refers to individuals and not properties) is so often used in political discussion (e.g. "2/3 of voters are home owners"). I am really curious what proportion of people actually own a home. Is it even a majority?