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It's really hard to prove some things scientifically. But that doesn't imply the effects are small, just that to move from correlation to causality is not easy
by native_samples 4y ago
It's really hard to prove some things scientifically. But that doesn't imply the effects are small, just that to move from correlation to causality is not easy at all.
In this case it's easy because there's no effect.
The sort of argument you're making above has become common in threads like these, but it's based on what looks a bit like template/pattern matching rather than logic. See also the comment below by ltbarcly3 which is correcting another instance of this. I noticed this problem crops up in COVID threads a lot.
Confounding factors matter when there is a correlation and you're trying to explain causation, because it means you might infer causality wrongly when in reality there's a confounder that explains it differently. Confounding factors are irrelevant when there's no correlation to explain, unless you posit that there actually is an effect but a confounder perfectly balances it out in the opposite direction. If you go there you'd better have really good evidence of it because (a) that's quite unlikely a priori and (b) that evidence is all that would stand between you and hallucinating things that aren't real.
In this case there is no effect to explain. Neither masks nor lockdowns have any observable effect on outcomes and this has been demonstrated six ways from Sunday, from the start of COVID. A lot of people desperately struggle to accept this because of what it implies about the honesty and competence of public health authorities, but the fact remains that these interventions had no effect and there are many studies showing this. You don't really need studies of course. Just looking at case graphs is enough to see this for yourself, because mask mandates were justified on the basis that they'd have a big impact on those graphs. When they don't do that reliably, it automatically means the policy is a failure. It's still nice to rigorously characterize the lack of effect, though.
Because there's no effect that means "correlation doesn't imply causation" is an invalid argument, it means "but real world data can be confounded" is irrelevant because there's nothing to be confounded, and it means a whole lot of other arguments that crop up in discussions of bad science are irrelevant. All these things are common objections to bad science because academics are so keen to announce effects in data that aren't real. They're therefore possibly valid objections to studies where masks or lockdowns are claimed to create real effects, but they aren't valid objections to studies supporting the null hypothesis.
- sjg007 4y agoThis is just anti-mask rhetoric.
- omniglottal 4y agoBetter to accommodate rhetoric than be wrapped in a blanket of bias.
- denton-scratch 4y ago> unless you posit that there actually is an effect but a confounder perfectly balances it out in the opposite direction. No need for an exact balance; ther study found that there was a positive correlation between mask-wearing and infection. That suggests there was a confounder of some kind, and and that it was more than sufficient to overcompensate for any protective effect. The only explanation I've seen offered for the positive correlation is that people wore masks more when infection rates were known to be high; that explanation is obviously a confounder.
- native_samples 4y agoIt found such a correlation only sometimes, and at any rate such a correlation is either irrelevant or harmful to the actual claim of interest (that mask mandates have a negative effect on COVID). The correlation between masking and reduction of COVID is zero. It certainly doesn't imply the existence of a confounder that takes real effectiveness and reduces it somehow past zero. Once you try to explain the (inconsistent) positive correlation between masks and COVID you're back in the territory where "correlation != causation" is a valid counter argument. As you note, such a correlation could be driven entirely by the false perception of effectiveness, without any actual effectiveness. But it can also be for other reasons e.g. places that were tougher about enforcing mask mandates had generically less competent governments that were more likely to do harmful things like flushing hospital patients into care homes. More likely: such correlations are spurious and there's no real causality there at all. The fact it doesn't show up consistently would certainly imply that. Also possible that the IHME mask usage data is bogus in some countries, or potentially lots of other things. We have no evidence that can support any explanation over any other.