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The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California. Why would the i

The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California. Why would the intellectual property the employee generated be worth nothing simply by originating in California? In other words, if a bottle manufacturer in Illinois sourced raw glass pellets from a plant they owned in California, they would be deriving value from a source in California. The glass is not worthless because it hasn’t been converted into bottles yet. The employee is providing intellectual property across state lines, which is why the state can enforce laws on that value that originated from within their jurisdiction.

notch656a 4y ago
>The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California. The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois. >Why would the intellectual property the employee generated be worth nothing simply by originating in California? It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois. >In other words, if a bottle manufacturer in Illinois sourced raw glass pellets from a plant they owned in California, they would be deriving value from a source in California. The glass is not worthless because it hasn’t been converted into bottles yet. This is actually a great example. I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place (/the finished product goes to), not where the company and/or workers physically resides. It wouldn't make sense at all for me to pay sales tax to Oklahoma, even though the ammunition and even all the physical presence was initially generated there. I pay sales tax where the transaction and actual value to me, the buyer of the goods, actually are. Using the same analogy from this court ruling, you would pay tax on the IP you bought in Illinois and not where it was initially produced California. >The employee is providing intellectual property across state lines, which is why the state can enforce laws on that value that originated from within their jurisdiction. The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois. You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois.
- Dangeranger 4y ago
  > The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois. Your comment confirmed that the value originated in one place, California where the company could not access it, and was transferred to another place, Illinois where the company could access it. The employee was compensated for the transfer of this value. That is interstate commerce, and therefore the jurisdiction of the originating state, California, can apply. > It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois. The company in Illinois compensated the employee for their time to generate intellectual property, so the company valued their work and exchanged payment to the employee for exchange of that value. So then the work clearly has value prior to being packaged and sold to the end customer. > I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place, not where the company and/or workers physically resides. The exchange of value and compensation between a company and their employees is governed by employment law. You seem to have conflated the concept of an employee with that of a business or an independent contractor, which are not the same thing, and are not governed by the same laws. When you hire employees across state lines, you are extending your business operations across state lines, and are subject to state jurisdiction. That is the cost-benefit trade-off of hiring outside your state, if you hired employees outside your country, for example in Canada or Mexico, then you would be beholden to inter-national laws governed by treaties. > The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois. No, the business is not "purchasing IP within their state lines", the business is employing a person who resides within another state, and therefore the business must abide by the employment laws of the employee's state, as well as the business state of origin. An example of buying IP would be purchasing a legal contract template, or a software license. In the examples I provided sales tax for the state where the purchase originated would apply. > You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois. I'm unsure if you are trolling or just very confused, but your statement makes no sense and does not fit within the logical framework of United States inter-state commerce law. Employees are not classified as an independent business, they are and extension of a business's operations.

notch656a 4y ago

>The value to the consumer was provided by the company in Illinois, the value to the company was provided by an employee residing in California. The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois. >Why would the intellectual property the employee generated be worth nothing simply by originating in California? It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois. >In other words, if a bottle manufacturer in Illinois sourced raw glass pellets from a plant they owned in California, they would be deriving value from a source in California. The glass is not worthless because it hasn’t been converted into bottles yet. This is actually a great example. I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place (/the finished product goes to), not where the company and/or workers physically resides. It wouldn't make sense at all for me to pay sales tax to Oklahoma, even though the ammunition and even all the physical presence was initially generated there. I pay sales tax where the transaction and actual value to me, the buyer of the goods, actually are. Using the same analogy from this court ruling, you would pay tax on the IP you bought in Illinois and not where it was initially produced California. >The employee is providing intellectual property across state lines, which is why the state can enforce laws on that value that originated from within their jurisdiction. The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois. You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois.

Dangeranger 4y ago
> The value to the company was provided in Illinois, with bits inside of Illinois. The company doesn't value bits inside California that it cannot access. They compensated for bits they can actually access within Illinois. Your comment confirmed that the value originated in one place, California where the company could not access it, and was transferred to another place, Illinois where the company could access it. The employee was compensated for the transfer of this value. That is interstate commerce, and therefore the jurisdiction of the originating state, California, can apply. > It may be worth something to someone in California before it's exported, but that transaction never happened. In this case though the actual transaction took place in exchange for a product inside Illinois. The company in Illinois compensated the employee for their time to generate intellectual property, so the company valued their work and exchanged payment to the employee for exchange of that value. So then the work clearly has value prior to being packaged and sold to the end customer. > I buy ammunition online from a company in Oklahoma, where all the business and employees of the ammunition company resides. Yet I pay sales tax here in <my state> based on recent court rulings regarding 'internet sales tax' which state the tax is where the transaction took place, not where the company and/or workers physically resides. The exchange of value and compensation between a company and their employees is governed by employment law. You seem to have conflated the concept of an employee with that of a business or an independent contractor, which are not the same thing, and are not governed by the same laws. When you hire employees across state lines, you are extending your business operations across state lines, and are subject to state jurisdiction. That is the cost-benefit trade-off of hiring outside your state, if you hired employees outside your country, for example in Canada or Mexico, then you would be beholden to inter-national laws governed by treaties. > The employer is buying IP within their state lines of Illinois. No, the business is not "purchasing IP within their state lines", the business is employing a person who resides within another state, and therefore the business must abide by the employment laws of the employee's state, as well as the business state of origin. An example of buying IP would be purchasing a legal contract template, or a software license. In the examples I provided sales tax for the state where the purchase originated would apply. > You may be arguing the 'employee' is actually misclassified and is an illegal exporter who is a business owner in California with an export and bit smuggling business. Go after this 'employee' (bit smuggler), not the person buying bits in Illinois. I'm unsure if you are trolling or just very confused, but your statement makes no sense and does not fit within the logical framework of United States inter-state commerce law. Employees are not classified as an independent business, they are and extension of a business's operations.