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How is "there's no downtime in cooking" better than "Cooking onions is not downtime?" Both are assertions without backing evidence. For instance, it's possible
by simulate-me 4y ago
How is "there's no downtime in cooking" better than "Cooking onions is not downtime?" Both are assertions without backing evidence. For instance, it's possible for "Cooking onions is not downtime?" to be true (e.g. cooking onions requires active work) while "there's no downtime in cooking" is not true (e.g. cooking chicken broth involves downtime).
- stavros 4y agoBecause one is an effective counterargument if true, the other isn't, even if true. Hence, the former is a better counterargument.