3 ms·
That would certainly seem unlikely It's actually a proven matter of fact, so it's not really up for debate about whether it's likely or not. It happened alread
by native_samples 4y ago
That would certainly seem unlikely
It's actually a proven matter of fact, so it's not really up for debate about whether it's likely or not. It happened already.
The few countries that publish infection rates by vaccine status all show the same thing: the vaccinated get infected with COVID at much higher rates than the unvaccinated and this has been getting worse with time. England, Denmark, New Zealand all show this. There may be other countries by now.
Most countries simply don't publish this basic statistic at all, which is all you need to know about the integrity of public health.
Really the only way that's possible is by vaccinated groups having different behavior
No, negative effectiveness has happened before with vaccines and there are biological pathways via which it can happen. In particular the COVID mRNA vaccines are immunosuppressant. This was known by Pfizer before approval but not mentioned anywhere - it came out during their document dumps. OAS/imprinting is another very likely candidate.