The general categorical answer to that question is not known. Some linguists think it might be so, others disagree. Within the Indo-European family that includ

The general categorical answer to that question is not known. Some linguists think it might be so, others disagree. Within the Indo-European family that includes Latin and Sanskrit, the empirical historical process seems to have been that the Proto-Indo-European language was highly synthetic, and as time went on, less synthetic daughter languages such as Latin and Sanskrit developed from it by degrees. These in turn gradually developed by degrees into even less synthetic / more analytic daughter languages (Italian, Hindi, etc.) Why this happened is an open theoretical question. Pidginization (which would roughly correspond to 'lack of isolation'), and/or phonetic changes that impacted discernment of synthetic features are leading candidates.