4 ms·
Yes, of course. Because definable (really, computable) numbers don’t really “exist” either.
by l33t2328 5y ago
Yes, of course. Because definable (really, computable) numbers don’t really “exist” either.
- shkkmo 5y agoWe can can use definable numbers. Pi is used with such massive frequency that is seems silly to say it has the same nonexistence as numbers that we can literally never even mention, let alone use. My assertion is that there is something wonky with these u definable numbers and that wonkiness is directly related to how absolutely massive the infinity of reals is.