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> it is literally their example No, it isn't. The article is claiming that the D-K effect doesn't actually exist; actually all that is going on is "autocorrela
by pdonis 5y ago
> it is literally their example
No, it isn't. The article is claiming that the D-K effect doesn't actually exist; actually all that is going on is "autocorrelation". That claim is wrong. The D-K effect does exist, but it isn't what D-K said it was: it's not that there is an inverse correlation between perceived skill and actual skill; it is that there is no correlation (or at best a weak positive correlation) between perceived skill and actual skill (when we would intuitively expect a fairly strong positive correlation between them). That is what D-K's actual data shows; but neither D-K themselves in their paper, nor this article, correctly describe that.
- saurik 5y ago> The D-K effect does exist, but it isn't what D-K said it was... You are claiming an effect exists, and no one--and certainly not the author of this article, who seem to be fully bought into your very different statement of the effect (and so maybe we shall call it "the pdonis effect")--is disagreeing with you on that point; however, your insistence upon calling this effect "the Dunning-Kruger effect"--while simultaneously admitting that Dunning and Kruger described a different incorrect analysis as their "effect"--is what is unreasonable. Put simply: "the Dunning-Kruger effect" is the thing that Dunning and Kruger claimed to be true, not some other random property of the data that their same experiment could have backed up, if only they had realized; and it is this effect--the actual Dunning-Kruger effect, as described by Dunning and Kruger in no uncertain terms--which does not seem to exist.