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> You're still approaching this as "A's feelings vs B's rationale". Not necessarily. I also wrote: «If one part obviously feels so much _stronger_ than the ot
by redbar0n 5y ago
> You're still approaching this as "A's feelings vs B's rationale".
Not necessarily. I also wrote:
«If one part obviously feels so much _stronger_ than the other, why shouldn’t the other just give way?
…
some people tend to feel _more strongly_ about most things, and others may not feel particularly strong about anything (although _they are not void of feelings/opinions_).»
I’m thinking about the degree of feelings involved. (No one is fully and solely rational, after all.)
I agree with you on the other points you make.
- llbeansandrice 5y agoI suppose the statement I made is slightly imprecise, but the framing is still A's feelings and rationale vs B's feelings and rationale. Which is the entire paradigm I'm saying is bunk and pointless.