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I'd argue that any significant wealth inequality constitutes a market distortion. It undermines the "wisdom of the crowd" that underpins capitalism.
by nicoburns 5y ago
I'd argue that any significant wealth inequality constitutes a market distortion. It undermines the "wisdom of the crowd" that underpins capitalism.
- LudwigNagasena 5y agoBut it has nothing to do with inheritance as wealth inequality would exist even before inheritance.
- nicoburns 5y agoIt does have something to do with inheritance. Inheritance directly causes wealth inequality because some people inherit money while others don't (and the amounts inherited vary widely). It's not the only mechanisms which causes wealth inequality, but it is one of them.
- deleted 5y ago[deleted]