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Unfortunately the thesis is wrong. Knowing an outcome would always be 50/50 a gambler would be inclined to make the 'fallacious' assumption that string of hea
by jollybean 5y ago
Unfortunately the thesis is wrong.
Knowing an outcome would always be 50/50 a gambler would be inclined to make the 'fallacious' assumption that string of heads would likely to be yield heads.
The argument made is that someone would not make that assumption! Because it's irrational.
And then through a very long winded and unnecessary example ... posits another kind of coin toss ('koins'), where the 50/50 ratio is not necessarily known, it might make sense to actually bet heads after a string of heads.
The 'fallacy' in the thesis, is that even when gamblers know the odds which is to say, rationally, we know it's 50/50 ... we will still, intuitively want to be to on heads, after a string of heads.
Our 'instincts' want to see dependent results where there are none, which is the basis of the very real fallacy.
I don't know why pages and pages were focused on creating a contrived example when a one sentence description might have sufficed, maybe I missed something ...
- woojoo666 5y agoI think what the author means by "the gamblers fallacy is not a fallacy" is that they are saying "what people commonly call the gamblers fallacy, is not actually a fallacy (and also not the gamblers fallacy)". That is, people are attributing gamblers fallacy to events that are not necessarily independent. And the author uses "koins" as an example for an object that has a 50/50 probability on average, but the flips are actually not independent events. And the author explains how in many cases, people don't know if events are independent (even for coin flips! As the flipping mechanism can introduce correlation between events) so they should be careful when declaring gamblers fallacy