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Can someone explain to me how civil forfeiture doesn't create a perverse incentive by making police departments dependent on the existence and availability of (
by daenz 5y ago
Can someone explain to me how civil forfeiture doesn't create a perverse incentive by making police departments dependent on the existence and availability of (potentially illicit) funds?
- TaylorAlexander 5y agoIt is clear from the many stories of civil asset forfeiture that this is exactly what it does.
- neuralspark 5y agoNo one can, because it does.
- woodruffw 5y agoThat is what it does, and we've seen a number of concrete examples of that over the years. ProPublica has done some excellent reporting[1] on it. [1]: https://www.propublica.org/article/police-say-seizing-property-without-trial-helps-keep-crime-down-a-new-study-shows-theyre-wrong https://www.propublica.org/article/police-say-seizing-proper...
- daenz 5y ago>For some law enforcement agencies, forfeiture funds have accounted for as much as 20% of their budgets, and are sometimes used for seemingly nonessential purchases. Jesus, this is depressing.
- chrismcb 5y agoNo. No one can explain how it doesn't. I was recently watching one video where the state basically outlawed civil forfeiture. But the fed hasn't. And the feds will share the profit with all agencies involved. So police in that state will still sieze money and turn it over to the feds and get a cut back.