Well, good. But some nuance is still lost here in my opinion. > in historical-linguistic context it basically only applies to not killing Jewish people This i

Well, good. But some nuance is still lost here in my opinion. > in historical-linguistic context it basically only applies to not killing Jewish people This is your own framing. Perhaps you are a timelord or a 3000 yr old man? :) There is weird stuff in the Bhagavad-Gita, bringing your own context to it is ill advised as you are likely to misread the text. I suggest, very politely, that this is what happened here - I have only heard such interpretations as yours from non native speakers with only a passing familiarity of the original text. In other words, I'm glad we agree that a modern day rabbi would disagree with this but it is not as if a rabbi from 1000 years ago would say the commandment only applies to non-Jews. Nor would one from the time of Moses. I don't know where you got this notion. It doesn't matter. Ask someone knowledgable if you are interested.