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you ought to realize that people have had a couple thousand years to develop a body of laws and thought around this. This is of course true but I wasn't trying
by causality0 5y ago
you ought to realize that people have had a couple thousand years to develop a body of laws and thought around this.
This is of course true but I wasn't trying to say anything about modern Abrahamic religions or their practitioners. Jewish doctrine has changed over time just as Christian and Islamic doctrines have. Jewish people aren't some kind of insane throwback and I wasn't trying to imply that they were.
- recuter 5y agoWell, good. But some nuance is still lost here in my opinion. > in historical-linguistic context it basically only applies to not killing Jewish people This is your own framing. Perhaps you are a timelord or a 3000 yr old man? :) There is weird stuff in the Bhagavad-Gita, bringing your own context to it is ill advised as you are likely to misread the text. I suggest, very politely, that this is what happened here - I have only heard such interpretations as yours from non native speakers with only a passing familiarity of the original text. In other words, I'm glad we agree that a modern day rabbi would disagree with this but it is not as if a rabbi from 1000 years ago would say the commandment only applies to non-Jews. Nor would one from the time of Moses. I don't know where you got this notion. It doesn't matter. Ask someone knowledgable if you are interested.