First of all, thank you for taking the time to explain the whole thing. > >in USA, the callee pays. > Except in certain circumstances, I don't think this is t

First of all, thank you for taking the time to explain the whole thing. > >in USA, the callee pays. > Except in certain circumstances, I don't think this is true. Oh okay, so the caller pays and the callee does not pay under normal circumstances? Now I'm confused. When I said the callee pays in USA, I was working off of information from another comment[1] by jedberg in another branch on this thread. I'm pasting that comment below for convenience: > In India you have the advantage that the caller pays, which means you have a phone system that somewhat securely verifies who the caller is so they can be billed. In the US the receiver pays so there is no system in place to verify who the caller is. [1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=30839453 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=30839453