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> because the only difference between them is the open nasal path I wonder how denasalized nasals like Korean [m͊] would fit into the picture then. I did not

• adrian_b 5y ago
  While I know a little about written Korean, I am not familiar with the Korean pronunciation. Nevertheless, according to Wikipedia, the Korean denasalized nasals are pronounced exactly like their oral counterparts, i.e. "b" instead of "m" and "d" instead of "n". They use a special notation only because at their origin they were nasals and even now the denasalisation happens only in certain contexts and in certain cases the denasalisation is partial, the resulting sound being intermediate between the oral and the nasal variants (i.e. the nasal path is only partially open).
  • Asraelite 5y ago
    > according to Wikipedia, the Korean denasalized nasals are pronounced exactly like their oral counterparts, i.e. "b" instead of "m" and "d" instead of "n". I don't speak Korean, but from hearing it I get the impression that it's more complicated than that: Korean word-initial nasals vary randomly in their nasality. Sometimes they are partially nasal, sometimes there is no nasal airflow at all. And when they are fully denasalized, the resulting [b] and [d] are voiced for the full duration that they are held, while normal [b] and [d] resulting from word-medial /p/ and /t/ are only partially overvoiced i.e. similar to English /b/ and /d/.