No, I don't think that's true, unless perhaps there's a tense or other grammatical structure in the source that was present in early modern English but not in p

No, I don't think that's true, unless perhaps there's a tense or other grammatical structure in the source that was present in early modern English but not in present-day English, and they chose to use it for grammatical accuracy. More likely, it's an old translation from the Latin. Many of the translations we have now originate from 150+ years ago.