5 ms·
No, there's not enough data to be sure either way, but given that some/most people experience absolutely no lingering symptoms the simplest explanation is that
by bigfudge 5y ago
No, there's not enough data to be sure either way, but given that some/most people experience absolutely no lingering symptoms the simplest explanation is that even mild disease cases damage in some people.
EDIT: to be clear. We have no idea if the outcome-generating process is continuous or discontinuous. You seem to think it's continuous, analogous to risks from smoking or obesity, but others would assume not.
- Retric 5y agoLingering symptoms isn’t a useful diagnostic tool in this case. Hart damage is generally invisible up until people have a significant problem. This is why young marathon runners occasionally die of undiagnosed heart problems and the elderly get in depth testing before voluntary medical procedures. Hypothetically, if 3/4 of population has the baseline risk and 1/4 the population has 8x the risk then you could say most people are at identical risks. But unless you can determine which population someone was in that’s irrelevant.