Can you help me understand what you mean? The low-volatility anomaly shows that investing in low volatility (low risk) assets tend to outperform over long stre

Can you help me understand what you mean? The low-volatility anomaly shows that investing in low volatility (low risk) assets tend to outperform over long stretches of time. It's a counter-intuitive result (hence being an anomaly) because the CAPM says lower risk assets should provide lower rates of return. So, as I understand it, the CAPM does imply volatility should correlate with returns because the risk-premium is weighted by beta. I.e., low volatility stocks tend to be low beta stocks. lower beta implies lower returns under CAPM. The anomaly contradicts that model