Not the previous commenter, but from what I understand is this. Previously: Poor purchasing power = 5 Rich purchasing power = 100 Now: Poor purchasing power

Not the previous commenter, but from what I understand is this. Previously: Poor purchasing power = 5 Rich purchasing power = 100 Now: Poor purchasing power = 15 Rich purchasing power = 500 This means even though the wealth inequality increased, the poor still are better off than before. Its not suggesting that BECAUSE of wealth inequality the poor are better off.