4 ms·
Note that they are two different verbs (to be and to have, respectively), so the context should have made it clear which one you should use.
by hota_mazi 5y ago
Note that they are two different verbs (to be and to have, respectively), so the context should have made it clear which one you should use.
- jfengel 5y agoYep. It was completely clear. I just wasn't thinking clearly.
- eyelidlessness 5y agoI don’t know much French at all but I do know my way around English in really silly ways, and it’s amusing to me to superimpose this distinction on an English language context. Because they’re two different verbs which we use in conjunction for one existential verb, which barely exists without recruiting other verbs. Having had this state of amusement, I will have left these thoughts for your future amusement if you’ll have them too.