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By definition it cannot be theft. Because of sanctions, the Russians wouldn't be allowed to pay for Western software anyways, so there is no difference to the b
by sudosysgen 5y ago
By definition it cannot be theft. Because of sanctions, the Russians wouldn't be allowed to pay for Western software anyways, so there is no difference to the bottom line.
Whereas if they pirate Russian software or software they can buy, there is an impact to the bottom line.
As a result it can be seen as a logically consistent position.
- electrondood 5y agoIf I'm banned from a store, it's still theft if I take goods from that store without paying.
- sudosysgen 5y agoBecause the store can't sell those goods. In this case the store can still sell the goods, and there is no lost revenue. There is not a single analogy to theft.
- postalrat 5y agoIn this case the store doesn't exist due to sanctions. So if you take goods from a store that doesn't exist is it stealing?
- akomtu 5y agoSoftware isnt taken, it's replicated like photographs.