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Yeah! I’ so confused reading some of these comments. Isn’t “loan” to lend money, and “borrow” to receive money? Do some locales use “loan” as both?
by speg 5y ago
Yeah! I’ so confused reading some of these comments.
Isn’t “loan” to lend money,
and “borrow” to receive money?
Do some locales use “loan” as both?
- catherd 5y agosome (most?) languages have a single bidirectional word
- Cederfjard 5y agoIn Swedish for example, “att låna” is ”to borrow”, and ”att låna ut” is ”to lend” (”to loan out”).
- namibj 5y agoGerman leihen is loan, while verleihen is lend. The "ver" is akin to "away", i.e., "loan away" (though this isn't a 1:1 translation and only works for one of the meanings on both sides of the language barrier).
- skydhash 5y agoIn Haitian creole, if the main object of the verbe “prete” is a person, it means loan, and the second object says what. If it’s only one non person object, it means borrow.
- leephillips 5y agoNo, you’re right. Probably English is not their first language.
- progre 5y agoSorry, yes. I wrote that mess. I'm swedish, we use the same word for both sides of the transaction. "Låna" - very obviously related to the english "loan". It didn't occur to me that there is a directionality to the English term.