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If OP meant "they have neither, in the context of being questioned by military police", then I don't think that's a difference between English law and American
by dane-pgp 5y ago
If OP meant "they have neither, in the context of being questioned by military police", then I don't think that's a difference between English law and American law, it's a difference between the laws that apply to civilians and the laws that (additionally) apply to members of the armed forces.
- simonh 5y agoThat's correct, I meant the former.