> If a rancher buys a plot of land from 34.42°N to 34.44°N to graze his cattle on, but in actual fact grazes his cattle all the way from 34.37°N to 34.47°N. The

> If a rancher buys a plot of land from 34.42°N to 34.44°N to graze his cattle on, but in actual fact grazes his cattle all the way from 34.37°N to 34.47°N. Then a farmer buys a plot of land from 34.37°N to 34.398°N to grow wheat on. Does the rancher still get to herd his cattle down to 34.39°N to feed his cattle? If you're actually curious about this specific scenario, in the US it's typically referred to as "adverse possession": https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adverse_possession > in the English common law tradition, courts have long ruled that when someone occupies a piece of property without permission and the property's owner does not exercise their right to recover their property for a significant period of time, not only is the original owner prevented from exercising their right to exclude, but an entirely new title to the property "springs up" in the adverse possessor. In effect, the adverse possessor becomes the property's new owner.[2][b] Over time, legislatures have created statutes of limitations that specify the length of time that owners have to recover possession of their property from adverse possessors. In the United States, for example, these time limits vary widely between individual states, ranging from as low as three years to as long as 40 years. Also, in some states like California you have to pay taxes on the land for a certain period of time before you can claim ownership. But yes, in your specific case it is possible to raise cattle on someone else's land for long enough to be able to legally claim that land as your own.