>When moneyed interests compete it becomes the same as their being no moneyed interests No. That's very incorrect. For example: Moneyed Interest #1 wants A &

>When moneyed interests compete it becomes the same as their being no moneyed interests No. That's very incorrect. For example: Moneyed Interest #1 wants A & B, Moneyed Interest #2 wants A & Not-B. It's entirely possible that Not-A is a bad business model, but is also in the interest of the citizenry at large to have Not-A be law.