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The “Exploitation” part really depends upon how one defines the term. However, it’s deeply unequal by definition for one person to have that much wealth. To ha
by wbsss4412 5y ago
The “Exploitation” part really depends upon how one defines the term. However, it’s deeply unequal by definition for one person to have that much wealth.
To have that much wealth also implies that there is a broader need/demand for said wealth. 1 trillion dollars does not, in and of itself, imply a determined set of material goods. If one were to argue that your possession of said imposes nothing upon anyone else, as everyone in this hypothetical world already has everything they want/need, then that wealth would not be nominally valued at $1 trillion. Value implies demand and scarcity relative to said demand.