2 ms·
> Eg in spoken languages the equivalent of 'I' is used much more often than any other pronoun. Similarly simpler sentences are perhaps more likely to refer to t
by rvense 5y ago
> Eg in spoken languages the equivalent of 'I' is used much more often than any other pronoun. Similarly simpler sentences are perhaps more likely to refer to the present than the past; eg past tense is much more likely to come with an additional specification of _when_ stuff happened. That information is less kind of a given when we are talking about _now_.
This still rests on a lot of assumptions about the language. Pronouns are used much more in some languages than others, some languages have more pronouns than others, etc.. Tense is not at all universal in the world's languages as you probably know. There are linguistic theories that even question the universality of nouns and verbs as categories, and even if they are to an extent universal, they are certainly not fixed in their boundaries across languages, e.g. most things that in English adjectives are expressed as verbs in Classical Arabic. Even if you could do a perfect job of extracting a set of syntactic categories and morphological paradigms from a language, I don't think you would be able to do anything with it. Word 3849 from category C often combines with words 201, 635, and 9913 from category F in conjugations 1-4, but never 5.
And of course, even for nouns that refer to basic, physical things, often some languages will have several words where another will make do with one, or have none. It quickly becomes a question of culture.