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Income inequality has increased because the top earners earned more. The poor people didn't become poorer.

• andrepd 5y ago
  Notice how you're justifying the system by arguing inside the system. "The system is not unequal because the system has allocated rewards this way". Classic circular reasoning: justifying a thing with the thing itself. Poor people and even the median did indeed become poorer, as wages either stagnated or even declined in real terms. Some consumer goods particularly electronics have decreased in price, but essentials have not: they increased a little (food) to a lot (housing, healthcare).
  • iopq 5y ago
    I'm not justifying anything, I'm simply stating that income inequality is the result of a lot of people becoming rich. Poor people did not become poorer and incomes did not stagnate if you include benefits. Currently healthcare is more expensive, and a larger percentage of total compensation is given in health benefits. Doesn't matter what your view on the health care issue is, if you're an employer, you spend more on your employees now than before
• dd36 5y ago
  If you can afford a TV but not a house, education, healthcare, etc. are you not poorer than a period where the inverse was true? Which one makes for a successful society?
  • iopq 5y ago
    Because health care became more expensive. You couldn't have an MRI in 1970 because your hospital didn't have it. The technology of health care is now a lot more advanced and can add years to your health expectancy. Now, there are government programs that help you pay premiums or give you free care. I was on Medicaid several years ago, so the poorest people don't have the issue of not being able to pay. But that's a whole another topic. The point is you can't just compare what you can afford, because you're not comparing the same things. Houses are bigger these days as well.