4 ms·
No, because the tax is only on the price someone would pay for the lot.
by rthomas6 5y ago
No, because the tax is only on the price someone would pay for the lot.
- dnautics 5y agoRestating the definition does not magically conjure a sensible strategy for arriving at that value.
- rthomas6 5y agoSo far, our comments have boiled down to "Yes you can assess unimproved value of improved land", and "No, you can't, there is no way to get that number separate from the value of improvements." So I'm going to try to say something different. 1. Here is the article that convinces me it is very possible to assess land separate from improvements. It details several strategies for doing so. Also properties are assessed in these ways already in many places. https://astralcodexten.substack.com/p/does-georgism-work-part-3-can-unimproved https://astralcodexten.substack.com/p/does-georgism-work-par... 2. Accuracy of assessment does not need to be super high for this idea to work. You just need an assessment with the intent of assessing unimproved land. The tax does not need to be literally 100% of unimproved land value, it just has to be a high percentage. Let's say there is a +/- 30% accuracy of unimproved land value assessment. We can have a 70% tax on that assessed value. Some people would in actuality be taxed at 97.5% of land value, and some people at 52.5% of land value. Perhaps the unfairness of this discrepancy is a true downside. However, one could argue the same about property taxes now.