> This assumption leads to the conclusion that only services that reside in the same jurisdiction (EU, USA, ...) can be used if legal protection from the state

> This assumption leads to the conclusion that only services that reside in the same jurisdiction (EU, USA, ...) can be used if legal protection from the state is desired. which is the correct conclusion? As the state can only offer legal protection under its own jurisdiction. Sure, real life complicates things a bit. (mainly, the jurisdiction of the EU as an institution in and of itself compared to its member states is a messy affair) but it is still a totally valid argument none the less.