3 ms·
> If f is a smooth function with df=0, then f is constant. Why would this be wrong? If the derivative is zero everywhere, how would the function not be constan
by formerly_proven 5y ago
> If f is a smooth function with df=0, then f is constant.
Why would this be wrong? If the derivative is zero everywhere, how would the function not be constant? Or does this mean something completely different?
- pedrosorio 5y agoThink about the domain of the function EDIT: Someone already provided the answer here https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=30146426 https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=30146426