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How so? I can't think of where that would hold true, aside from certain liability issues and other circumstances where it would be impractical or contrary to th
by ims 15y ago
How so? I can't think of where that would hold true, aside from certain liability issues and other circumstances where it would be impractical or contrary to the public interest.
- rdtsc 15y agoBecause the government is sovereign entity and can only be sued if it allowed itself to be sued. In fact it is exactly the opposite, the government allows itself to be sued in some tort cases (the liability you mention), in some cases involving IP, and even there you don't get a trial by jury -- a federal judge will decide if the federal govt. is guilty or not (yeah I know...).
- ims 15y agoRight but we're not talking about lawsuits. We're talking about criminal law and government agents being bound by laws.