6 ms·
It's not "purely up to the lender." It's agreed upon in a mortgage contract, which the borrower signed. Both parties decided that it was a good idea, otherwise
by stanleydrew 5y ago
It's not "purely up to the lender." It's agreed upon in a mortgage contract, which the borrower signed. Both parties decided that it was a good idea, otherwise there wouldn't have been an agreement.
- postalrat 5y agoHow do you know all mortgage contracts have a clause for if libor isn't available?