The question was whether the SEC would have jurisdiction. The manipulation affects securities that the SEC would have jurisdiction over, so it would follow that

The question was whether the SEC would have jurisdiction. The manipulation affects securities that the SEC would have jurisdiction over, so it would follow that they do. If not, it would be a pretty gaping hole in their mandate: "It's fine to manipulate X and profit from that, but not to profit from the regulated derivatives that closely track X."