4 ms·
I'm guessing Spanish doesn't have this because it doesn't do noun declination as much, but Latin does have the concept of a "common" grammatical gender that is
by mbg721 5y ago
I'm guessing Spanish doesn't have this because it doesn't do noun declination as much, but Latin does have the concept of a "common" grammatical gender that is distinct from the neuter, for words that apply to people or animals but that aren't specifically masculine or feminine.