"Technological progress should cause increasing economic inequality, because the bottom end of the scale is firmly anchored at zero (someone taking a vacation),

"Technological progress should cause increasing economic inequality, because the bottom end of the scale is firmly anchored at zero (someone taking a vacation), while technology gives the top end ever more powerful levers." - does an increase in the range of possibilities necessarily imply a larger gap? What if technology causes the range to widen, but the average gap to lessen. Not sure if its true or not, concrete data on this would be interesting.