I'm curious about this: > (4) annual multi-billion-dollar payments by Google to Apple not to compete in the search business; Assuming the allegation is correc

I'm curious about this: > (4) annual multi-billion-dollar payments by Google to Apple not to compete in the search business; Assuming the allegation is correct, what recourse would Google have if Apple took the multi-billion-dollar payment and then entered the search business? Surely a lawsuit would only set Google up for anti-trust complaints, so would their only recourse be to not fork over subsequent multi-billion-dollar payments to Apple? It seems analogous to a broken agreement between criminals -- one or more parties is outside the protection of the law. Could this reasoning also be used to defend against the allegation, i.e. surely Google wouldn't put themselves in such a situation where they could have no guarantee or surety that Apple wouldn't just take the money and run?